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Q41. The following congestion avoidance configuration has been applied on an outgoing interface:
Which is the result of the egress packets marked as DSCP AF32 when the average queue depth is 40?
A. It will be dropped with a random rate less than the one defined by MPD.
B. It will be tail dropped.
C. It will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 30.
D. It will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 20.
Q42. Which network interface technology eliminates the need for an external transponder at service provider sites?
Q43. QoS is applied on an outgoing interface as shown below:
What will the QoS result be for egress traffic with an average queue depth of 40 that is marked as DSCP AF32?
A. Traffic will be dropped with a random rate less than the one defined by MPD.
B. All traffic will be tail dropped.
C. Traffic will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 20.
D. Traffic will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 30.
Q44. Refer to the exhibit.
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Q45. In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
Q46. Refer to the exhibit.
IS-IS configuration has been deployed using the default IS-IS metric value and default IS-IS metric-style. The SP decides to implement MPLS TE in all routers, except R5. In order to maintain IS-IS adjacency between R3 and R5 without impacting reachability, which command should be configured on R3 router under the IS-IS process?
A. metric-style narrow
B. metric-style wide
C. metric-style narrow transition
D. metric-style transition
Q47. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each fast detection mechanism on the left to its definition on the right.
Q48. Refer to the exhibit. R2 and R3 cannot install IS-IS IPv6 routes. What is the root cause?
A. R2 is missing the metric-style wide command under the IS-IS process.
B. R3 is missing the multi-topology transition command under the IS-IS address-family IPv6 process.
C. R2 is missing the multi-topology command under the IS-IS address-family IPv6 process.
D. R3 is missing the metric-style wide command under the IS-IS process.
Q49. What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
1.4. SP high end product
A minimum of one LCC and one FCC are required to configure a multishelf system.
Q50. A service provider is using multicast flows to provide streaming video content to its customers. Video streams are sometimes interrupted, and network instability is determined to be the cause. Which action should the service provider take to decrease the burden on the router resources in an unstable unicast routing environment?
A. Reduce the volume of query messages.
B. Tune the RPF backoff.
C. i Increase the PIM hello hold timers.
D. Filter unnecessary SA messages.