A Review Of Vivid 1Z0-055 practice exam

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2016 Oct 1Z0-055 Study Guide Questions:

Q21. Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.) 

A. ADR diagnostic files 

B. all the optimizer statistics 

C. initialization parameter settings 

D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages 

E. the table and index definitions and actual data 

Answer: B,C,D 

Q22. USER_DATA is a nonencrypted tablespace that contains a set of tables with data. You want to convert all existing data in the USER_DATA tablespace and the new data into the encrypted format. Which methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.) 

A. Use Data Pump to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace. 

B. Use ALTER TABLE..MOVE to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace. 

C. Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace. 

D. Enable row movement for each table to be encrypted and then use ALTER TABLESPACE to encrypt the tablespace. 

E. Encrypt the USER_DATA tablespace using the ALTER TABLESPACE statement so that all the data in the tablespace is automatically encrypted. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Q23. In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.) 

A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching. 

B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching. 

C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching. 

D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching. 

E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching. 

Answer: A,D 

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Q24. Which three statements about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer are true? (Choose three.) 

A. It detects changes in SQL execution plans. 

B. It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline. 

C. The importance of SQL statements is based on the size of the objects accessed. 

D. It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQL statements. 

E. It shows only the overall impact on workload and not the net SQL impact on workload. 

Answer: A,B,D 

Q25. In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.) 

A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching. 

B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching. 

C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching. 

D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching. 

E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching. 

Answer: A,D 

Q26. View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup. 

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as the first command in the RMAN session: 

RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE; 

Which statement describes the consequence of the command? 

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures. 

B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair. 

C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command. 

D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). 

Answer: C 

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Q27. You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restarted the database: 

MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0 

MEMORY_TARGET=500M 

PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=90M 

SGA_TARGET=270M 

Which two statements are true regarding these parameters after the database instance is restarted? (Choose two.) 

A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB. 

B. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero till it is changed manually. 

C. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero. 

D. The lower bounds of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB, respectively. 

Answer: A,D 

Q28. View the Exhibit exhibit1. 

In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of COUNTRY_ID is "US" 

View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans. 

The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity? 

A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL. 

B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table. 

C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE. 

D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns. 

Answer: D 

Q29. Which statement is true when Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baselines are created using baseline templates? 

A. AWR baselines are always created as repeating baselines. 

B. AWR baselines can be created on the basis of two time values. 

C. AWR baselines are always created with infinite expiration duration. 

D. AWR baselines are always created using the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period as expiration duration. 

Answer: B 

Q30. Which two statements regarding the Flashback Table feature are correct? (Choose two.) 

A. Flashback Table can be performed on system tables. 

B. Flashback Table operation does not shrink the segments. 

C. Flashback Table uses log mining to extract SQL_REDO and SQL_UNDO statements. 

D. Flashback Table operation acquires exclusive data manipulation language (DML) locks. 

Answer: B,D 

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