Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Jun HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q321. You are riding in an elevator with several physicians discussing the care of a patient. The patient's name is used in the conversation, which piece of legislation has been violated?
B. Patient Bill of Rights
Explanation: HIPPA is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q322. Which of the following payment terms is based on the cost of the provider to perform services?
A. Sliding Scale Fee
B. Customary Charges
D. Fee for Services
Explanation: The fee for services term of payment is dependent on the cost of the provider to provide services such as lab tests, x-rays etc. Hospitals or other facilities receiving fee for service are paid for each individual service that is provided. Answer: B is incorrect. Customary charges is incorrect as this type of payment term is based on what is normally charged or what is reasonable for the service provided. Answer: A is incorrect. Sliding Scale fee is incorrect as this type of payment term is common in low income areas and is based on the patient's ability to pay. Answer: C is incorrect. Capitation is incorrect as this payment term is a pre-paid amount based on a per-person or per-capita amount.
Q323. Which of the following types of hospital information systems are designed to share information among all departments included in a large health system?
A. Departmental System
B. Enterprise System
C. Intradepartmental System
D. External System
Explanation: An enterprise system of health information is designed primarily for sharing information for all departments that encompass a large health system including hospitals, clinics and nursing homes. Answer: C is incorrect. Intradepartmental system is incorrect as this type of hospital information system is primarily used by one department but shares functions and information with other departments. Answer: A is incorrect. Departmental System is incorrect as this type of hospital system is limited and serves the purposes of one department or domain. Examples are dose management systems that are used by pharmacies. Answer: D is incorrect. External system is incorrect as this type of system is shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies or as an information exchange for regional health information networks.
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Q324. Which of the following is NOT a secure way of disposal of media having PHI data?
Explanation: Piercing media is not a secure way of disposal of media having PHI. When storage media are transferred, become obsolete, or are no longer usable or required by an information system, it is important to ensure that residual magnetic, optical, electrical, or other representation of data that has been deleted is not easily recoverable. Answer: A, B, D are incorrect. Shredding, degaussing, and sanitizing are secure way of disposal of media having PHI data.
Q325. Which of the following categories of information technology in the health care setting involves bar coding applications?
A. Clinical IT
B. Infrastructure IT
C. Administrative IT
D. Financial IT
Explanation: Applications of infrastructure information technology support the infrastructure of the health care facility. These applications include voice recognition for medical records and medical transcription as well as bar coding applications for medical devices and drugs. Answer: C is incorrect. Administrative IT is incorrect as these applications are used to make staff scheduling, patient registration and payroll procedures more efficient. Answer: A is incorrect. Clinical IT is incorrect as these applications are used for prescription of drugs and ordering of laboratory tests and medical procedures Answer: D is incorrect. Financial IT is incorrect as these applications are used to improve the efficiency of billing and accounting practices.
Q326. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a TCP-based network. You want to connect a new client computer to the network. You have configured the computer for receiving IP address automatically. Which of the following services is required to be running on the network?
D. DHCP Relay Agent
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Answer: A is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system used for locating domain names on private TCP/IP networks and the Internet. It provides a service for mapping DNS domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. DNS enables users to use friendly names to locate computers and other resources on an IP network. TCP/IP uses IP addresses to locate and connect to hosts, but for users, it is easier to use names instead of IP address to locate or connect to a site. For example, users will be more comfortable in using the host name www.company.com rather than using its IP address 18.104.22.168. Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. Answer: D is incorrect. DHCP Relay Agent is used in a routed network to communicate with the DHCP server on the other segment. The relay agent relays Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) message traffic between the DHCP-enabled clients on a local physical network and a remote DHCP server located on another physical network. The DHCP Relay Agent takes DHCP messages from DHCP clients and forwards them to the IP address of DHCP servers. The responses from the DHCP servers are sent to the IP address of the DHCP Relay Agent, which then forwards them to the DHCP client.
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Q327. Your hospital's equipment vendor provides many life-saving devices, from heart-monitors to EKG's, that store and sort PHI data for retrieval by the hospital's EMR system. In your Service Level Agreements (SLA), you want to make sure that equipment vendors have agreed to the essentials that HIPAA and NIST recommend are in place for a contingency situation for covered entities. Which of the following would not be a NIST recommendation?
A. Allowable outage times for the piece of equipment
B. Financial penalties for the vendor failing to meet the recovery deadlines
C. Deadlines for providing restoration of data
D. A list of recovery strategies to restore IT operations quickly between equipment and the EMR system
Explanation: Financial penalties are often included in SLA's to ensure vendor compliance; however, NIST does not concern itself with punitive measures but rather preventative policies and plans. Answer: D is incorrect. NIST recommends that all covered entities have a list of IT recovery strategies as part of their contingency plans to meet HIPAA's guidelines. A vendor's SLA should indicate its role in fulfilling these strategies regarding its equipment. Answer: C is incorrect. This is an essential part of any NIST recommendation for SLA's and any SLA in general. The whole point of a service level agreement is to define the level of service, that is how quickly issues will be resolved when they occur. In a medical setting, such IT issues can have life-changing consequences and time is of the essence. Answer: A is incorrect. Similar to option C, the allowable outage time also impacts level of service in the hospital or medical setting. It may be that the restoration of data may be more complex and take longer than the simple functioning of the equipment. The service a vendor provides around such a situation how quickly they respond to and fix or replace a device is an essential part of an SLA.
Q328. Which of the following cables support transmission speed of 1000Mbps?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 5
C. Cat 3
D. Cat 6
Explanation: Cat 5e and Cat 6 cables support transmission speed of 1000Mbps.
Q329. Which of the following options of the IPCONFIG command is used to flush the leased IP address from Network Interface Card (NIC)?
Explanation: The /release option of the IPCONFIG command is used to flush the leased IP address from Network Interface Card (NIC). Answer: D is incorrect. The /renew option is used to renew DHCP configuration for adapters or an specific adapter if the Adapter parameter is included. Answer: A is incorrect. The /registerdns option is used to initiate manual dynamic registration for the DNS names and IP addresses that are configured at a computer. Answer: C is incorrect. The /showclassid option of the IPCONFIG command is used to display the DHCP class ID for a specified adapter.
Q330. You are the privacy officer in charge of setting up the policies and procedures for protecting patient information within your covered entity. You have studied HIPAA's requirements and are now faced with determining what kinds of policies you need to implement. Which of the follow do you NOT need to implement?
A. A policy limiting staff members from naming the covered entity for which they work outside the office.
B. A policy governing the ongoing training of how to handle PHI for employees.
C. A policy outlining which employees have access to electronic protected health information (EPHI).
D. A policy defining what role management will play in the oversight and compliance for security controls.
Explanation: HIPAA protects patient information, not the name of medical practices. An employee can certainly say where he works to his spouse or even to another company to which he might apply. Answer: B is incorrect. Ongoing training is an essential part of HIPAA compliance. Answer: C is incorrect. This is required, as this is the heart of EPHI concerns. Answer: D is incorrect. There must be clearly defined management roles, which become especially helpful during audits and when HIPAA concerns or complaints arise.