[Exact] 312-50 EC-Council latest exam 421-430 (Jul 2017)

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Q421. How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B? 

A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message 

B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message 

C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination 

D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages 

Answer: B

Q422. Which of the following buffer overflow exploits are related to Microsoft IIS web server? (Choose three) 

A. Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) buffer overflow 

B. Code Red Worm 

C. Indexing services ISAPI extension buffer overflow 

D. NeXT buffer overflow 

Answer: ABC

Explanation: Both the buffer overflow in the Internet Printing Protocol and the ISAPI extension buffer overflow is explained in Microsoft Security Bulletin MS01-023. The Code Red worm was a computer worm released on the Internet on July 13, 2001. It attacked computers running Microsoft's IIS web server. 

Q423. Lauren is performing a network audit for her entire company. The entire network is comprised of around 500 computers. Lauren starts an ICMP ping sweep by sending one IP packet to the broadcast address of the network, but only receives responses from around five hosts. Why did this ping sweep only produce a few responses? 

A. Only Windows systems will reply to this scan. 

B. A switched network will not respond to packets sent to the broadcast address. 

C. Only Linux and Unix-like (Non-Windows) systems will reply to this scan. 

D. Only servers will reply to this scan. 

Answer: C

Q424. A denial of Service (DoS) attack works on the following principle: 

A. MS-DOS and PC-DOS operating system utilize a weaknesses that can be compromised and permit them to launch an attack easily. 

B. All CLIENT systems have TCP/IP stack implementation weakness that can be compromised and permit them to lunch an attack easily. 

C. Overloaded buffer systems can easily address error conditions and respond appropriately. 

D. Host systems cannot respond to real traffic, if they have an overwhelming number of incomplete connections (SYN/RCVD State). 

E. A server stops accepting connections from certain networks one those network become flooded. 

Answer: D

Explanation: Denial-of-service (often abbreviated as DoS) is a class of attacks in which an attacker attempts to prevent legitimate users from accessing an Internet service, such as a web site. This can be done by exercising a software bug that causes the software running the service to fail (such as the “Ping of Death” attack against Windows NT systems), sending enough data to consume all available network bandwidth (as in the May, 2001 attacks against Gibson Research), or sending data in such a way as to consume a particular resource needed by the service. 

Q425. After an attacker has successfully compromised a remote computer, what would be one of the last steps that would be taken to ensure that the compromise is not traced back to the source of the problem? 

A. Install pactehs 

B. Setup a backdoor 

C. Cover your tracks 

D. Install a zombie for DDOS 

Answer:

Explanation: As a hacker you don’t want to leave any traces that could lead back to you. 

Q426. What did the following commands determine? 

C : user2sid \\earth guest S-1-5-21-343818398-789336058-1343024091-501 

C:sid2user 5 21 343818398 789336058 1343024091 500 Name is Joe Domain is EARTH 

A. That the Joe account has a SID of 500 

B. These commands demonstrate that the guest account has NOT been disabled 

C. These commands demonstrate that the guest account has been disabled 

D. That the true administrator is Joe 

E. Issued alone, these commands prove nothing 

Answer: D

Explanation: One important goal of enumeration is to determine who the true administrator is. In the example above, the true administrator is Joe. 

Q427. Bret is a web application administrator and has just read that there are a number of surprisingly common web application vulnerabilities that can be exploited by unsophisticated attackers with easily available tools on the Internet. 

He has also read that when an organization deploys a web application, they invite the world to send HTTP requests. Attacks buried in these requests sail past firewalls, filters, platform hardening, SSL, and IDS without notice because they are inside legal HTTP requests. Bret is determined to weed out any vulnerabilities. What are some common vulnerabilities in web applications that he should be concerned about? 

A. Non-validated parameters, broken access control, broken account and session management, cross-side scripting and buffer overflows are just a few common vulnerabilities 

B. No IDS configured, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and visible clear text passwords are just a few common vulnerabilities 

C. Visible clear text passwords, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and no SSL configured are just a few common vulnerabilities 

D. No SSL configured, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and an inattentive system administrator are just a few common vulnerabilities 

Answer: A

Q428. On a default installation of Microsoft IIS web server, under which privilege does the web server software execute? 

A. Everyone 

B. Guest 

C. System 

D. Administrator 

Answer: C

Explanation: If not changed during the installation, IIS will execute as Local System with way to high privileges. 

Q429. Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports? 

A. SMB 

B. FTP 

C. SAMBA 

D. FINGER 

Answer: A

Explanation: Port 135 is for RPC and 136-139 is for NetBIOS traffic. SMB is an upper layer service that runs on top of the Session Service and the Datagram service of NetBIOS. 

Q430. What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote? 

A. Unknown Type 

B. Time Exceeded 

C. Source Quench 

D. Destination Unreachable 

Answer: B

Explanation: An ICMP Type 11, Code 0 means Time Exceeded [RFC792], Code 0 = Time to Live exceeded in Transit and Code 1 = Fragment Reassembly Time Exceeded. 

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