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2016 Jul SY0-401 Study Guide Questions:

Q421. It is important to staff who use email messaging to provide PII to others on a regular basis to have confidence that their messages are not intercepted or altered during transmission. They are concerned about which of the following types of security control? 

A. Integrity 

B. Safety 

C. Availability 

D. Confidentiality 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Integrity means that the messages/ data is not altered. PII is personally identifiable information that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. PII can be used to ensure the integrity of data/messages. 

Q422. Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches? 

A. Software as a service 

B. Public Clouds 

C. Cloud Based Storage 

D. Infrastructure as a service 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software. 

Q423. A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel. Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Select TWO). 

A. Patch Audit Policy 

B. Change Control Policy 

C. Incident Management Policy 

D. Regression Testing Policy 

E. Escalation Policy 

F. Application Audit Policy 

Answer: B,D 

Explanation: 

A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fi ne until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfi xes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout. A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets in the event of changes occurring. 

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Q424. An administrator needs to connect a router in one building to a router in another using Ethernet. Each router is connected to a managed switch and the switches are connected to each other via a fiber line. Which of the following should be configured to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network? 

A. Configure each port on the switches to use the same VLAN other than the default one 

B. Enable VTP on both switches and set to the same domain 

C. Configure only one of the routers to run DHCP services 

D. Implement port security on the switches 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Port security in IT can mean several things: The physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. The management of TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports. If a service is active and assigned to a port, then that port is open. All the other 65,535 ports (of TCP or UDP) are closed if a service isn’t actively using them. Port knocking is a security system in which all ports on a system appear closed. However, if the client sends packets to a specific set of ports in a certain order, a bit like a secret knock, then the desired service port becomes open and allows the client software to connect to the service. 

Q425. A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. 

Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? 

A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. 

B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. 

C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. 

D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network. 

Q426. Ann, the network administrator, is receiving reports regarding a particular wireless network in the building. The network was implemented for specific machines issued to the developer department, but the developers are stating that they are having connection issues as well as slow bandwidth. Reviewing the wireless router's logs, she sees that devices not belonging to the developers are connecting to the access point. Which of the following would BEST alleviate the developer's reports? 

A. Configure the router so that wireless access is based upon the connecting device's hardware address. 

B. Modify the connection's encryption method so that it is using WEP instead of WPA2. 

C. Implement connections via secure tunnel with additional software on the developer's computers. 

D. Configure the router so that its name is not visible to devices scanning for wireless networks. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

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Q427. The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented? 

A. Implicit deny 

B. VLAN management 

C. Port security 

D. Access control lists 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

In the OSI model, IP addressing and IP routing are performed at layer 3 (the network layer). In this question we need to configure routing. When configuring routing, you specify which IP range (in this case, the IP subnet of the remote site) is allowed to route traffic through the router to the FTP server. 

Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted. 

Q428. The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed? 

A. Signature Based IDS 

B. Heuristic IDS 

C. Behavior Based IDS 

D. Anomaly Based IDS 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats. 

Q429. Which of the following ports should be used by a system administrator to securely manage a remote server? 

A. 22 

B. 69 

C. 137 

D. 445 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Secure Shell (SSH) is a more secure replacement for Telnet, rlogon, rsh, and rcp. SSH can be called a remote access or remote terminal solution. SSH offers a means by which a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device can be established over any distance. SSH makes use of TCP port 22. 

Q430. Which of the following helps to establish an accurate timeline for a network intrusion? 

A. Hashing images of compromised systems 

B. Reviewing the date of the antivirus definition files 

C. Analyzing network traffic and device logs 

D. Enforcing DLP controls at the perimeter 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

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