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2016 Oct 350-080 Study Guide Questions:
Q91. What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine?
switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v"
A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.
B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.
C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.
D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.
Q92. Which command sends a tet call home inventory message to start the registration process.
A. test callhome inventory
B. callhome inventory test
C. callhome test inventory D. test inventory callhome
Q93. Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed devices.
B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the network operator role.
C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices.
D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device.
E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported.
Improved 350-080 ccie data center written exam:
Q94. How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects licensed?
A. All ports are fully licensed by default.
B. The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default.
C. The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default.
D. The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default.
E. The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.
Q95. You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with a host HBA. The customer has both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and look at the R_RDY flows between the MDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the best way to start troubleshooting this problem?
A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs.
B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail is needed to examine the R_RDY flow.
C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flow between the host and MDS.
D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannot decode R_RDYs.
E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel Analyzer inline.
Q96. Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).
C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only.
D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).
F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.
High quality ccie data center 350-080:
Q97. Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)
Q98. Which two actions must be done before configuring iSCSI boot for a server? (Choose two.)
A. The storage array must be licensed for iSCSI boot.
B. The operating system must be iBFT-compatible.
C. Zoning must be configured.
D. Boot parameters must be configured in the global group policy.
E. IP subnet of iSCSI initiator has to be in the same subnet as that of storage array.
Q99. When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?
A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.
B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active.
C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive.
D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.
E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on.
Q100. On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)
A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled
B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage
C. FIP negotiation timing
D. Peer does not support LLDP
E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled