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Exam Code: ccie 400 101 dumps (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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Q241. Which two statements about IBGP multipath are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The IGP metric of the BGP next hop can be different from the best-path IGP metric if you configure the router for unequal-cost IBGP multipath. 

B. The IGP metric of the BGP next hop must be the same as the best-path IGP metric. 

C. The equivalent next-hop-self is performed on the best path from among the IBGP multipaths before it is forwarded to external peers. 

D. The path should be learned from an external neighbor. 

E. The router BGP process must learn the path from a confederation-external or external neighbor. 

F. The router BGP process must learn the path from an internal neighbor. 

Answer: A,F 

Q242. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which option explains why the forwarding address is set to 0.0.0.0 instead of 110.100.1.1? 

A. The interface Ethernet0/1 is in down state. 

B. The next-hop ip address 110.100.1.1 is not directly attached to the redistributing router. 

C. The next-hop interface (Ethernet0/1) is specified as part of the static route command; therefore, the forwarding address is always set to 0.0.0.0. 

D. OSPF is not enabled on the interface Ethernet0/1. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

From the output of the “show ip ospf database” command (although this command is not shown) we can conclude this is an ASBR (with Advertising Router is itself) and E0/1 is the ASBR’s next hop interface for other routers to reach network 192.168.10.0. 

The Forwarding Address is determined by these conditions: 

* The forwarding address is set to 0.0.0.0 if the ASBR redistributes routes and OSPF is not enabled on the next hop interface for those routes. 

* These conditions set the forwarding address field to a non-zero address: 

+ OSPF is enabled on the ASBR’s next hop interface AND 

+ ASBR’s next hop interface is non-passive under OSPF AND 

+ ASBR’s next hop interface is not point-to-point AND 

+ ASBR’s next hop interface is not point-to-multipoint AND 

+ ASBR’s next hop interface address falls under the network range specified in the router ospf command. 

* Any other conditions besides these set the forwarding address to 0.0.0.0. 

-> We can see E0/1 interface is not running OSPF because it does not belong to network 110.110.0.0 0.0.255.255 which is declared under OSPF process -> F.A address is set to 0.0.0.0. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13682-10.html 

Q243. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the StackWise stack master election rule on the left into the correct priority order on the right. 

Answer: 

Q244. Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.) 

A. Frame Relay 

B. ATM 

C. AToM 

D. L2TPv3 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

Both AToM and L2TPv3 have the common objective of transmitting packet switched traffic of L2 frames (Frame Relay, ATM, and Ethernet) across a packet-switched network. 

Reference: Layer 2 VPN Architectures – Google Books Result Wei Luo, Carlos Pignataro, Anthony Chan 

https://books.google.com/books?isbn=0132796864 

Q245. Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? (Choose two.) 

A. Stuck-in-active conditions are solved faster. 

B. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state. 

C. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network. 

D. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down. 

Answer: A,C 

Q246. Which authentication types does OSPF support? 

A. null and clear text 

B. MD5 only 

C. MD5 and clear text 

D. null, clear text, and MD5 

E. clear text only 

Answer:

Q247. Where must the spanning-tree timers be configured if they are not using the default timers? 

A. They must be on the root bridge. 

B. They must be on any non-root bridge. 

C. Changing the default timers is not allowed. 

D. Timers must be modified manually on each switch. 

Answer:

Q248. Which two statements about IOS and IOS XE are true? (Choose two.) 

A. IOS XE can upgrade and restart applications independently of IOS. 

B. Only IOS uses the FFM to provide separation between the control plane and the data plane. 

C. IOS XE provides improved functionality and an enhanced UI. 

D. Only IOS runs as a single daemon within the Linux OS. 

E. IOS XE provides additional system functions that run as multiple separate processes in the OS. 

Answer: A,E 

Q249. Which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.) 

A. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. 

B. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetfFow. 

C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link. 

D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

. Passive and Active Monitoring 

Passive monitoring is the act of OER gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow. OER, when enabled, automatically enables NetFlow on the managed interfaces on the border routers. By aggregating this information on the border routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the master controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Additionally, attributes like throughput, reachability, loading, packet loss, and latency can be deduced from the collected flows. Active monitoring is the act of generating IP SLA probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. Active probes can either be implicitly generated by OER when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or explicitly configured by the network manager in the OER configuration. 

Reference: http://products.mcisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/Transport_div ersity/Transport_Diversity_PfR.html#wp199209 

Q250. Which bit should be set in the link-state PDU of an IS-IS L1/L2 router to indicate that it is a potential exit point of the area? 

A. the ABR bit 

B. the ATT bit 

C. the down bit 

D. the P bit 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Default routing is achieved in two distinct ways with Integrated IS-IS: 

. Attached bit—Set by a Level 1/Level 2 router in its own Level 1 LSP and used to indicate to all Level 1 routers (within the area) that this router is a potential exit point of the area. Level 1-only routers will default to the nearest attached Level 2 router. 

. Default information originate—Can be configured in Level 1 as well as Level 2. The default route (0.0.0.0/0) is inserted in the router LSP (Level 1 or Level 2, according to the configuration command) and the LSP is flooded according to the router type (Level 1 or Level 2). A Level 2 router doesn't need to have a default route to originate a default route. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sh tml