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Exam Code: sy0 401 practice test (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q241. Datacenter access is controlled with proximity badges that record all entries and exits from the datacenter. The access records are used to identify which staff members accessed the data center in the event of equipment theft. Which of the following MUST be prevented in order for this policy to be effective? 

A. Password reuse 

B. Phishing 

C. Social engineering 

D. Tailgating 



Tailgating is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you without needing to use a key, a card, or any other security device. This should be prevented in this case. 

Q242. A customer has provided an email address and password to a website as part of the login process. Which of the following BEST describes the email address? 

A. Identification 

B. Authorization 

C. Access control 

D. Authentication 


Q243. Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of? 


A. Buffer overflow prevention 

B. Input validation 

C. CSRF prevention 

D. Cross-site scripting prevention 



Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain. 

Q244. A system administrator has been instructed by the head of security to protect their data at-rest. 

Which of the following would provide the strongest protection? 

A. Prohibiting removable media 

B. Incorporating a full-disk encryption system 

C. Biometric controls on data center entry points 

D. A host-based intrusion detection system 



Full disk encryption can be used to encrypt an entire volume with 128-bit encryption. When the entire volume is encrypted, the data is not accessible to someone who might boot another operating system in an attempt to bypass the computer’s security. Full disk encryption is sometimes referred to as hard drive encryption. This would be best to protect data that is at rest. 

Q245. Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures? 

A. User permission reviews 

B. Mandatory vacations 

C. Separation of duties 

D. Job function rotation 



Privilege creep is the steady build-up of access rights beyond what a user requires to perform his/her task. Privilege creep can be decreased by conducting sporadic access rights reviews, which will confirm each user's need to access specific roles and rights in an effort to find and rescind excess privileges. 

Q246. Joe, a security analyst, asks each employee of an organization to sign a statement saying that they understand how their activities may be monitored. Which of the following BEST describes this statement? (Select TWO). 

A. Acceptable use policy 

B. Risk acceptance policy 

C. Privacy policy 

D. Email policy 

E. Security policy 

Answer: A,C 


Privacy policies define what controls are required to implement and maintain the sanctity of data privacy in the work environment. Privacy policy is a legal document that outlines how data collected is secured. It should encompass information regarding the information the company collects, privacy choices you have based on your account, potential information sharing of your data with other parties, security measures in place, and enforcement. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware. 

Q247. Which of the following can only be mitigated through the use of technical controls rather that user security training? 

A. Shoulder surfing 

B. Zero-day 

C. Vishing 

D. Trojans 



A zero day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability in a software application. This cannot be prevented by user security training. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users. 

Q248. Matt, a developer, recently attended a workshop on a new application. The developer installs the new application on a production system to test the functionality. Which of the following is MOST likely affected? 

A. Application design 

B. Application security 

C. Initial baseline configuration 

D. Management of interfaces 



The initial baseline configuration of a computer system is an agreed configuration for the computer. For example, the initial baseline configuration will list what operating system he computer will run, what software applications and patches will be installed and what configuration settings should be applied to the system. In this question, we are installing a new software application on a server. After the installation of the software, the “configuration” of the server (installed software, settings etc) is now different from the initial baseline configuration. 

Q249. Which of the following is the MOST intrusive type of testing against a production system? 

A. White box testing 

B. War dialing 

C. Vulnerability testing 

D. Penetration testing 



Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in. 

Pen test strategies include: 

Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out. 

External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access. 

Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause. 

Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive. 

Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures. 

Q250. Which of the following has a storage root key? 







Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates on non-volatile (NV) memory. Data stored on NV memory is retained unaltered when the device has no power. The storage root key is embedded in the TPM to protect TPM keys created by applications, so that these keys cannot be used without the TPM.